If a person, after passing away, is reborn as a human again and, by coincidence, unearths the tomb of their previous life, yet due to the oblivion between rebirths, they remain unaware that this tomb belongs to their former self, then if they take the funerary objects, does it constitute taking with the owner's permission? If not, does this count as theft?
Although this person steals items that belonged to their past self, the act still constitutes theft because there exists an intent to steal. All karmic retribution for good and evil deeds is primarily determined by the mind; without intent, there is neither sin nor merit. However, since this person stole their own property, they did not infringe upon another person. The items did not transfer from another to themselves, and ownership did not change hands. Thus, the karma of theft is not fully satisfied, and the offense incurs only minor karmic retribution.
This situation is analogous to someone who clearly intends to steal a specific item from another person's house but, after searching through everything, fails to find that item. It is also similar to a case where someone is about to take an item but, upon the owner's return, abandons the item and flees. These examples illustrate that while the intent to steal exists, the act of theft is not fully consummated since the items were not transferred. Consequently, the perpetrator cannot be convicted, the punishment would be minor, and the karmic retribution would be light.
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